The Qur’an Cannot Be A Text of Divine Origin

[محمد سني 1989]

Quote

No.. Sorry, it it is you who is wrong. My response was not based on the phrase regarding Hebrew literature, I simply mentioned in passing the fact that not all early Jewish literature was considered divine in nature. As Jeremiah 8:8 is dealing with the OT, then obviously the text in question is divine.

That was the whole point , so they were manipulating the writtings NOT the interpritation!!!!

Plus if you did not mean that it was about other texts and it was about OT then why argue!!!!! and why say this :

Quote

Regarding "Hebrew Literature" .. You are joking here right? Not all Hebrew literature was considered the inspired word of God... Early Jewish

Apocrypha also had its place in society but was NOT considered inspired or part of the Jewish canon. You understand that literature is written but you do not seem to understand that NOT all literature is inspired by God!! I am sometimes inspired by the world around me to write poetry... Should I claim God directly inspired me to write poetry?? If I did claim thus is my poetry of divine origin???

I mean what is the point now with such statements , I already was talking about what pulpit said !!! so why do you need to mention this ??

Quote

. If you read more of pulpit commentary instead of just skimming off what you thought suited your purpose then you would have had a clearer picture. Please read below and bear in mind the example I gave you... If I myself interpreted a verse from my church Bible and changed it from the original meaning..

Before his death, Moses wrote 13 Torah Scrolls. Twelve of these were distributed to each of the 12 Tribes. The 13th was placed in the Ark of the Covenant (with the Tablets). If anyone would come and attempt to rewrite or falsify the Torah, the one in the Ark would “testify” against him. (Likewise, if he had access to the scroll in the Ark and tried to falsify it, the distributed copies would “testify” against him.)

Based on the methodology above how do you suppose the scribes were able to corrupt the words of the Torah without such a deception being discovered? It seems far more likely that the dishonest scribes Jeremiah talks of here were guilty of ignoring the law in the Torah and teaching the people their own false interpretations.

It is interesting that you are accusing me of misinterpriting pulpit while I gave you all of what pulpit said , yet you still did not answer and claimed his opinion here is just circumstantial differentiation ; a simple difference in the opinion which is wrong , added to what Gill said here :

Lo, certainly ... - Rather, Verily, lo! the lying pen "of the scribes" hath made it - the Law - into a lie. The mention of "scribes" in this place is a crucial point in the argument whether or not the Pentateuch or Torah is the old law-book of the Jews, or a fabrication which gradually grew up, but was not received as authoritative until after the return from the captivity. It is not until the time of Josiah 2 Chronicles 34:13 that "scribes" are mentioned except as political officers; here, however, they are students of the Torah. The Torah must have existed in writing before there could have been an order of men whose special business it was to study it; and therefore to explain this verse by saying that perhaps the scribes were writers of false prophecies written in imitation of the true, is to lose the whole gist of the passage. What the scribes turned into a lie was that Law of which they had just boasted that they were the possessors. Moreover, the scribes undeniably became possessed of preponderating influence during the exile: and on the return from Babylon were powerful enough to prevent the restoration of the kingly office
Barne's Notes on the bible

As for what you mentioned of testifying :

Again this is the writers view and the bible never said that the ark would testify against its !!!

Did it testify against the sumeritans or the writers of the dead sea scroll ???

Quote

. Do you think they were ignorant of the Torah Law being corrupted? You must decide if the lying scribes were greater than the prophets who followed them, the prophets who were guided by God... In whom I would place my faith that they would know truth from falsehood. Unless you are claiming all subsequent prophets after Jeremiah and also the Lord Jesus were complicit and knowingly taught from a corrupt Torah. I do hope you do not believe such a scenario!!

I already discussed many times , in short Jesus had the original Torah and gospel with him

Quote

You have consistently demonstrated IMHO a lack of knowledge in Christianity yet you behave as if you're some kind of expert.

This is coming from the person who could not answer, explain and also contradicts the trinity doctrine in christianity !!!!!

Quote

Friend... Arrogance is not becoming, I feel it is you who skim over my posts because you evidently don't understand what I say

Really because it seems you are having a hard time keeping up

Quote

honestly.. What is this truth I am avoiding? I stated unequivocally that the article I posted on Jeremiah 8 and the articles you posted from pulpit commentary and Gills Bible etc.. Were for all intents and purposes in agreement.

NOPE they do not

Quote

It is YOU who seem unable to see that. And please don't you ever imply that I am being dishonest!

Wrong on both accounts , Show me were gill and pulpit did not say that the literal words were not manipulated and it was the meaning
Show me where I called you or elluded to you being dishonest !!???

Complaining too much about anything and everything is what makes a person childish . Remember that.

Peace