Quote

Originally Posted by
Burninglight
Isaiah 53:5New International Version (NIV)
5
But he was pierced for our transgressions,
he was crushed for our iniquities;
the punishment that brought us peace was on him,
and by his wounds we are healed.
Cross references:
A.Isaiah 53:5 : S Ps 22:16
B.Isaiah 53:5 : S Ex 28:38; S Ps 39:8; S Jn 3:17; Ro 4:25; 1Co 15:3; Heb 9:28
C.Isaiah 53:5 : Ps 34:18
D.Isaiah 53:5 : S Isa 50:6
E.Isaiah 53:5 : S Isa 9:6; Ro 5:1
F.Isaiah 53:5 : Isa 1:6; Mt 27:26; Jn 19:1
G.Isaiah 53:5 : S Dt 32:39; S 2Ch 7:14; 1Pe 2:24-25
Jesus obviously fulfilled these prophecies. There is just no getting around it. We people of the Book; we Christians know the peace of Isaiah 53, because we know Jesus died in this way for our sin. We know He was pierced for our sins. We know we are blessed and healed by His stripes and wounds. We know that a cursed is on those who deny Jesus is the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world. I suggest Muslims read the whole chapter 53 of Isaiah. There is no way this is a corruption. It is a fulfillment by Jesus that God will ask why people didn't receive it especially when he said He gave the torah and Injil as guidance and light. To say this is a corruption is lame, because the OT and NT confirm each other on the death of Christ. It doesn't get any clearer. One has to be willfully ignorant not to see this or one who buries their head in the sand like an ostrich. I notice my responsesto thread and post or new threads are not being posted quickly as they used to be. Is that so one can think up or contrive answers in an attempt to gainsay the truth I share here?
The passage about Isaiah 53 I already answered before and it has nothing to do with your crusifiction :
As for Isaih 53 , Isaiah 53 is a continuation of 52 where the ones talking here are the gentile kings reffering to israel as a singular NOT THE MESSIAH , describing its sorrows , grief , torture and son on
This text contains however many manipulations to dellude such a matter , For example :
the text in isiaih 9 says in his death , in the hebrew language it is translated as in his deaths (plural ). Did jesus die many deaths??? or just one according to you !!!!
Another example , in verse 10 it says :
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
The word seed here in both the KJB and the original hebrew refers to a biological son BUT jesus did not have a son !!!
So this text is reffering to israel as a whole in the tongue of gentile kings , this is how jews interperated it and this is what jews told christians within their debates:
I remember that once in a discussion with some whom the Jews regard as learned (i.e. Rabbis) I used these prophecies. At this the Jew said that these prophecies referred to the whole people as though of a single individual, since they were scattered in the dispersion and smitten, that as a result of the scattering of the Jews among the other nations many might become proselytes. In this way he explained the text: "Your form shall be inglorious among men" and "those to whom he was not proclaimed shall see him" and "being a man in calamity"
origen the church father in his debates with jews
http://www.copticchurch.net/topics/patrology/schoolofalex2/chapter17.html
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