I read the article thanks for sharing it. It really goes through a great deal of pain to show that the Qur’an didn't Plagiarize Ancient Greek Embryology, but I must admit that there is a great deal of similarity between Muhammad's description and that of the ancient Greek's writings that came before. Now, one can still argue that Muhammad had been influenced by Galen and Aristotle but lets say he didn't borrow from them, can you explain why he borrowed the virgin birth story of Jesus from the NT Bible? There is no other place such a story could be found. One cannot argue that the Quran came before the record testimony in the Bible. Since Jesus' virgin birth hadn't been recorded in the OT Bible or the torah and so on, why did Muhammad imperfectly borrow this from the NT Bible and reject the reasons for Jesus' virgin birth given in the sources he found them in?