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Quote Originally Posted by هشيم View Post
This is a prophetic passage and has nothing to do with (Gods judgement against rebellious nations, primarily Judah and Jerusalem) which the Book of Isaiah. Babylon is concerned not (Kedar, Tema.....)
With all due respect I believe you are wrong in your assumptions. Isaiah prophecies were concerning the wrath of God against rebellious nations.

586 B.C. - Judah (Southern Kingdom) conquered by Babylon. Jerusalem destroyed, including the first Temple, and the Jews exiled to Babylon.

538 B.C. - The exiles return to Jerusalem from Babylon.

The Book of Isaiah was written about 740-680 B.C. Given the historical context and location do you not believe it more logical to believe that Isaiah was referring to Judah and Jerusalem and the conflict with Babylon? Given that this occurred hundreds of years before the birth of Christ Jesus, and given that the latter prophecies of Isaiah dealt with the coming of the Messiah, a title given to Jesus.. Both in the Bible and Quran.. Would it not be reasonable to assume that this prophecy that you believe refers to Mohammed was fulfilled the best part of a thousand years before Mohammed was born in 570.

Again of course you are free to interpret the previous scriptures as you will. Yet if Mohammed was prophesied in the Bible, I believe it would have been clearer, in a work the size and scope of the Bible there would have been more referrals than the mere handful that muslims like to lay claim to. Even these verses have to be seen outside of the biblical context in which they are set to even remotely appear to refer to Mohammed. It just does not seem logical.

Peace.