Rebuttal to "Answering Islam" team on Leviticus 25:44-46:

Regarding my points on Leviticus 25:44-46, here is what the anti-Islamic "Answering Islam" team wrote:

"For one thing the word for slave isn't present in the Hebrew text of the Bible, the NIV translated the word for servant in Hebrew as slave. Read a Jewish translation of these same verses:

And as for thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, whom thou mayest have: of the nations that are round about you, of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids. Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them may ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they have begotten in your land; and they may be your possession. And ye may make them an inheritance for your children after you, to hold for a possession: of them may ye take your bondmen for ever; but over your brethren the children of Israel ye shall not rule, one over another, with rigour. JPS Leviticus 25:44-46

Notice that the word for slave in the NIV doesn't mean slave in the Jewish translation, it means servant or bondman."

When I looked up the word "bondmen" in www.dictionary.com, I found it to mean:

1- A male bondservant. (http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=bondmen).

And when I looked up the word "bondservant", I found it to mean:

1- A person obligated to service without wages.
2- A slave or serf.

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/di...rm=bondservant)

So, how is it possible for the NIV Bible to be in error when they used the word "slave"?

Ironically, the one who wrote this from their team is Quennel Gale, an African American Christian. He should pretty much know the English vocabulary very well from his writings in green above and other writings that I have rebuttals for on my site. He is obviously pretending to be naive in the English language to cover up for the slavery-promoting Bible.

Do you know what the word "naive" mean Quennel?

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=naive)