Thread: Jesus’ in the Fabricated Bible!

Jesus’ in the Fabricated Bible!

By: Shahid Bin Waheed

In the Gospel according to Matthew we read ►1: 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.◄ Matthew fabricated this myth by borrowing the Isaiah 7:14, which reads ►7: 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. ◄ This is how the “Immanuel” of Isaiah 7:14 became the “Jesus” of Matthew 1:21. Most of the NT is the fabrication from OT using the reverse engineering process. But what Matthew has conveniently interpreted as Jesus is originally “Joshua” (meaning: YHWH {Yahweh} is salvation). However, according to the Encyclopedia Americana {1959} we find that Josephus, a Jewish historian has referred to nineteen (19) different individuals by the name Jesus.

Jesus is not the one who brought the Injeel (انجيل) that was revealed to Eesa {AS}. Let us read the Matthew 1:21 with previous and latter verses where the though in complete.

1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
NOTICE: Matthew 1:22-23 is a direct explicit reference to Isaiah 7:14. Whereas Matthew 1:20 explicitly states that that Jesus was fathered by Holy Ghost. Contrary to that we find a contradicting story in Luke 1:28 i.e.Was Mary a virgin or angel Gabriel had sex with her?

Another dilemma Christians have is that there is more than one Christ (Anointed) in the Bible, as we read:

In 1 Kings 1 (1:39 And Zadok the priest took an horn of oil out of the tabernacle, and anointed Solomon. And they blew the trumpet; and all the people said, God save king Solomon.) King Solomon is the Christ. In the same chapter some one else is also a Christ as we read: (1:45 And Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet have anointed him king in Gihon: and they are come up from thence rejoicing, so that the city rang again. This is the noise that ye have heard.)

In 1 Kings 5 we read (5:1 And Hiram king of Tyre sent his servants unto Solomon; for he had heard that they had anointed him king in the room of his father: for Hiram was ever a lover of David.)

Also see: 1 Sam 10:1; 12:3, 5; 15:17; 16:6, 13; 2:10, 35; 24:6, 10; . Isa 45:1; Nu 3:3 and dozens of other places in the Bible.

Now my questions to Christians:

1. 1. According to the Bible and history Jesus is a very common name, so how the alleged Immanuel became Jesus? Where is the evidence of name change from Immanuel to Jesus?
2. 2. "Christ (Anointed)" is used for dozens of many others in the Bible, so why you claim that “Christ” is unique?

Friday, January 02, 2004

Quote

Originally Posted by نسيبة بنت كعب

Jesus’ in the Fabricated Bible!

By: Shahid Bin Waheed

In the Gospel according to Matthew we read 1: 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Matthew fabricated this myth by borrowing the Isaiah 7:14, which reads 7: 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. This is how the “Immanuel” of Isaiah 7:14 became the “Jesus” of Matthew 1:21. Most of the NT is the fabrication from OT using the reverse engineering process. But what Matthew has conveniently interpreted as Jesus is originally “Joshua” (meaning: YHWH {Yahweh} is salvation). However, according to the Encyclopedia Americana {1959} we find that Josephus, a Jewish historian has referred to nineteen (19) different individuals by the name Jesus.

Jesus is not the one who brought the Injeel (انجيل) that was revealed to Eesa {AS}. Let us read the Matthew 1:21 with previous and latter verses where the though in complete.

1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
NOTICE: Matthew 1:22-23 is a direct explicit reference to Isaiah 7:14. Whereas Matthew 1:20 explicitly states that that Jesus was fathered by Holy Ghost. Contrary to that we find a contradicting story in Luke 1:28 i.e.Was Mary a virgin or angel Gabriel had sex with her?

Another dilemma Christians have is that there is more than one Christ (Anointed) in the Bible, as we read:

In 1 Kings 1 (1:39 And Zadok the priest took an horn of oil out of the tabernacle, and anointed Solomon. And they blew the trumpet; and all the people said, God save king Solomon.) King Solomon is the Christ. In the same chapter some one else is also a Christ as we read: (1:45 And Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet have anointed him king in Gihon: and they are come up from thence rejoicing, so that the city rang again. This is the noise that ye have heard.)

In 1 Kings 5 we read (5:1 And Hiram king of Tyre sent his servants unto Solomon; for he had heard that they had anointed him king in the room of his father: for Hiram was ever a lover of David.)

Also see: 1 Sam 10:1; 12:3, 5; 15:17; 16:6, 13; 2:10, 35; 24:6, 10; . Isa 45:1; Nu 3:3 and dozens of other places in the Bible.

Now my questions to Christians:

1. 1. According to the Bible and history Jesus is a very common name, so how the alleged Immanuel became Jesus? Where is the evidence of name change from Immanuel to Jesus?
2. 2. "Christ (Anointed)" is used for dozens of many others in the Bible, so why you claim that “Christ” is unique?

Friday, January 02, 2004

To your questions.. Which no one ever bothered to answer. :) In the prophecy of the virgin birth.. Isaiah 7:14, the prophet Isaiah said "Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign, The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call Him Immanuel." This prophecy refers to the birth of Jesus in Matthew 1:22-23, "All this took place to fulfil what the Lord had said through the prophet: 'The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel' which means, 'God with us.'" This does not mean, that the Messiah’s name would actually be Immanuel.

There are many names given to Jesus using the phrase “He shall be called,” both in the Old and New Testaments. The New Testament is not a "fabrication" of the Old Testament but the fulfilment of it. The Bible gives many examples of how Jesus will be referred to. Isaiah prophesied of the Messiah, "His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace". None of these titles was Jesus' actual name, but were descriptions people would use to refer to Him forever. We find it said that Jesus "shall be called the Son of the Highest" in Luke and "son of God" and "the prophet of the Highest".... but again none of these was His name.


In two different places, the prophet Jeremiah says in referring to the coming Messiah... "And this is His name by which He shall be called, YHWH, OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS".. As we know from the Bible God the Father is named Yahweh. Jesus was never actually called Yahweh as though it was His name, but His role was that of bringing the righteousness of Yahweh to those who would believe in Him.. exchanging that righteousness for our sin. Therefore, this is one of the many titles or "names" which belong to Him. In the same way, to say that Jesus would be called "Immanuel" means Jesus is God and that He dwelt among us in His incarnation and that He is always with us. Jesus was God in the flesh. Jesus was God making His dwelling among us ... So.. No, Jesus' name was not Immanuel, but Jesus was the meaning of Immanuel, "God with us." Immanuel is another one of the many titles for Jesus, a description of who He is.

On your second point of "anointed"... And why we see it as unique in its application to Jesus. The act of anointing became symbolic of blessing, protection, and empowerment. Tradition has it that oil was used, in Bible times, people were anointed with oil to signify God’s blessing or call on that person's life. A person was anointed for a special purpose... to be a king, to be a prophet, etc. Another meaning for the word anointed is "chosen one." The Bible says that Jesus was anointed by God with the Holy Spirit to spread the Good News and free those who have been held captive by sin.. The anointing of Jesus has a twofold meaning as a prophet of God, the chosen one... And that of King, although a King with no earthly Kingdom, but a heavenly Kingdom that will last for eternity. After Christ left the earth, He gave us the gift of the Holy Spirit... We believe Christians are "anointed".. Spiritually chosen to spread the Word. That is our mission if we choose to accept it.. We spread the Word and the good news that is the Gospel of Jesus Christ, there is no compulsion on anyone to listen or indeed take heed.. The choice is left to the individual.

Much the same as you feel obliged to spread the message of Islam... And I am also inferring that likewise there is no compulsion and one is free to accept or reject according to ones own conscious.

Peace.

Quote

Originally Posted by نسيبة بنت كعب

Jesus’ in the Fabricated Bible!

By: Shahid Bin Waheed

In the Gospel according to Matthew we read 1: 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Matthew fabricated this myth by borrowing the Isaiah 7:14, which reads 7: 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. This is how the “Immanuel” of Isaiah 7:14 became the “Jesus” of Matthew 1:21. Most of the NT is the fabrication from OT using the reverse engineering process. But what Matthew has conveniently interpreted as Jesus is originally “Joshua” (meaning: YHWH {Yahweh} is salvation). However, according to the Encyclopedia Americana {1959} we find that Josephus, a Jewish historian has referred to nineteen (19) different individuals by the name Jesus.

Jesus is not the one who brought the Injeel (انجيل) that was revealed to Eesa {AS}. Let us read the Matthew 1:21 with previous and latter verses where the though in complete.

1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
NOTICE: Matthew 1:22-23 is a direct explicit reference to Isaiah 7:14. Whereas Matthew 1:20 explicitly states that that Jesus was fathered by Holy Ghost. Contrary to that we find a contradicting story in Luke 1:28 i.e.Was Mary a virgin or angel Gabriel had sex with her?

Another dilemma Christians have is that there is more than one Christ (Anointed) in the Bible, as we read:

In 1 Kings 1 (1:39 And Zadok the priest took an horn of oil out of the tabernacle, and anointed Solomon. And they blew the trumpet; and all the people said, God save king Solomon.) King Solomon is the Christ. In the same chapter some one else is also a Christ as we read: (1:45 And Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet have anointed him king in Gihon: and they are come up from thence rejoicing, so that the city rang again. This is the noise that ye have heard.)

In 1 Kings 5 we read (5:1 And Hiram king of Tyre sent his servants unto Solomon; for he had heard that they had anointed him king in the room of his father: for Hiram was ever a lover of David.)

Also see: 1 Sam 10:1; 12:3, 5; 15:17; 16:6, 13; 2:10, 35; 24:6, 10; . Isa 45:1; Nu 3:3 and dozens of other places in the Bible.

Now my questions to Christians:

1. 1. According to the Bible and history Jesus is a very common name, so how the alleged Immanuel became Jesus? Where is the evidence of name change from Immanuel to Jesus?
2. 2. "Christ (Anointed)" is used for dozens of many others in the Bible, so why you claim that “Christ” is unique?

Friday, January 02, 2004

So you see a problem that Matthew attributes Isaiah 7:14 to Jesus when the prophecy was given 700 years before Christ was born and the prophecy was given to Ahaz and the child being born of a virgin (young maiden) would be called Immanuel which means God with us and not that it was God in the flesh. Well, who can argue with that? God often does duel fulfillments and shadows and types of the real thing. Some Christians have left the faith over such issues, there is lots of other OT prophecies about Jesus being the Savior to die for our sin and him being the mighty God. Read Isaiah 53 Jesus fits that perfectly.
So my question to you is if Matthew was fabricating this as you say then why did Islam borrow the story of the virgin birth story from what you consider a fabricated source. The only place the virgin story could be found in regards to Jesus is in the NT Bible. Why did Muhammad borrow that information from a corrupted source? If the NT Bible is fabricate, what does that make the Quran? I have asked this question many times, and I get no answers.

While I am still waiting patiently for an answer for the past few days, answer these as well. Allah said his word is unchangeable or alterable since the torah and the gospel was sent to Muhammad from Allah, and it is also his word, how can it be corrupted? If it is corrupted, then what is the Quran, and what is Allah's word? If the Bible was corrupted when he first sent it to Muhammad, then where, when and how did it happen from Muhammad's time to now and what was the motive? If you cannot answer these questions, that means you are making unfounded statements to support your religion. If a religion needs for one to make unfounded statements to support it, one must ask is it worth supporting! If you don't answer these questions, I also take it that you cannot gainsay my questions and comments.

peace be unto you