|شبكة الفرقان الإسلامية||شبكة سبيل الإسلام||شبكة كلمة سواء الدعوية||منتديات حراس العقيدة|
|البشارة الإسلامية||منتديات طريق الإيمان||منتدى التوحيد||مكتبة المهتدون|
|موقع الشيخ احمد ديدات||تليفزيون الحقيقة||شبكة برسوميات||المرصد الإسلامي لمقاومة التنصير|
|غرفة الحوار الإسلامي المسيحي||مكافح الشبهات||شبكة الحقيقة الإسلامية||موقع الدعوة الإسلامية|
|شبكة البهائية فى الميزان||شبكة الأحمدية فى الميزان||مركز براهين||شبكة ضد الإلحاد|
How does indicating plurality to a single person glorify that person? Explain God as a single person along with how is it you see his oneness. If he is one person, for instance, can he be in several different places at the same time that would require more than one person to do on earth for us humans? If yes, how does he do it?
The title of this thread shouldn't be what makes more sense, but what is true between Christianity or Islam, because they cannot both be right. Something can be true and not make sense and yet be accepted by faith and something can be false and make sense to the deceived mind. Thereforr the title of this thread makes no sense when it comes to the things of God that are spiritually discerned.
In regards of your comment , yes about the title I agree , christians especially born again are so closed minded that they cannot accept the truth even when they see it in there own eyes . Phsycologically speaking they are afraid of returning to that same state of mind before there "coming back to the light" moment
Semetic languages including Arabic and Hebrew use plurality as a way to glorify or show a high status to a certain person such as when a king says our armies , he of course means his but it is a way to show royalty. This is so popular in semetic poetry
Ok now I see that you are willing to have a mutual debate so thank you
If you are going to research then I suggest researching something called al jarh wa at tadeel الجرح و التعديل it refers to the study of the chain of transmission in hadeeths , All hadeeths' authenticity depends on this field of study
Why have you forsaken me , ultimately means why have you left me and abandoned me , this sentence brings up a huge question mark , why would the messiah the one agreed upon by all abrahamic religion to establish the kingdom of god in earth would say something like that. This sentence has been used A LOT by aniti Jesus Jews , fortunatlly for muslims we do not believe he said such a thing. Peace be upon jesus and his mother
The context of Psalm 22:
1For the choir director; upon Aijeleth Hashshahar. A Psalm of David. My God, my God, why have You forsaken me? Far from my deliverance are the words of my groaning. 2O my God, I cry by day, but You do not answer; And by night, but I have no rest.3Yet You are holy, O You who are enthroned upon the praises of Israel.4In You our fathers trusted; They trusted and You delivered them.…
The context of this shows that this was said because god did not respond to David as in psalm 22:2 . This was in other words said because god did not answer and that is the point Jesus according to Mark said it because as the context reveal god did not answer , it is not appropriate to say , Jesus never said that.
That is why when the writer of Luke (one of the synoptic gospels) copied from Mark , did not like this passage so he changed it to :
46And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, "Father, INTO YOUR HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT." Having said this, He breathed His last.
Luke 23: 46
Note : I am not talking about the crusifixion or why theidea of bearing the sin rather I am talking about what jesus said
Because the writer of luke was coppying from Mark and editted some passages which he saw a problem , one is this. Luke and Matthew copied from Mark thats why they are called the synoptic gospels
Jesus could not have said both because they are both speaking of his last words :
And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, "Father, INTO YOUR HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT." Having said this, He breathed His last.
Luke 23: 46And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost.
Mark 15: 37
This was his last moment , a loud cry so according to Mark his last words was god why have you forsaken meVerse 37. - And Jesus uttered a loud voice, and gave up the ghost. The three synoptists all mention this cry, which appears to have been something different from the words which he uttered at or about the time of his death. It was evidently something supernatural, and was so regarded by the centurion who stood by; and who had no doubt been accustomed to scenes like these.
I know what you will say , you will say the loud cry is what jesus said in Luke , that is wrong in two ways :
1. Mark and Matthew are both older than Luke , Mark 40 AD Matthew 70-100 AD . As for Luke it was written 80- 90 AD
2. biblical commentary describe the loud cry in Mark as something different:
Source : Pulpit Commentary
What is the point you are trying to make so I can address that?
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